MathematicsMedium63×since 2002Q3666If f\left( x \right) = \left| {\matrix{ {\cos x} & x & 1 \cr {2\sin x} & {{x^2}} & {2x} \cr {\tan x} & x & 1 \cr } } \right|, then limx→0f′(x)x\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} {{f'\left( x \right)} \over x}x→0limxf′(x)Adoes not exist.Bexists and is equal to 2.Cexistsand is equal to 0.Dexists and is equal to −-− 2.Check answerSkip