MathematicsHard115×since 2008Q4331Given the following two statements: (S1):(q∨p)→(p↔∼q)\left( {{S_1}} \right):\left( {q \vee p} \right) \to \left( {p \leftrightarrow \sim q} \right)(S1):(q∨p)→(p↔∼q) is a tautology (S2): ∼q∧(∼p↔q)\left( {{S_2}} \right): \,\,\sim q \wedge \left( { \sim p \leftrightarrow q} \right)(S2):∼q∧(∼p↔q) is a fallacy. Then:Aboth (S₁) and (S₂) are not correctBonly (S₁) is correctConly (S₂) is correctDboth (S₁) and (S₂) are correctCheck answerSkip